[Jan 20, 2022] Pass CCSA R80 156-215.80 Exam With 527 Questions
Ultimate Guide to Prepare Free CheckPoint 156-215.80 Exam Questions and Answer
Check Point Certified Security Administrator (CCSA R80) 156-215.80 Exam
Check Point Certified Security Administrator (CCSA R80) 156-215.80 Exam is related to Check Point Certified Security Administrator Certification.156-215.80 Exam validates the ability to install R80 Management, security in a distributed environment configure objects rules, settings to define a security policy, work with multiple concurrent administrators and define permission profiles. This exam also deals with the ability to configure a virtual private network, work with checkpoint clustering and perform periodic administrator tasks as specified in administrator job descriptions. Security Administrator and Check Point Professionals usually hold or pursue this certification and candidate can expect the same job roles after completion of this certification.
NEW QUESTION 94
The tool _______ generates a R80 Security Gateway configuration report.
- A. cpinfo
- B. infoview
- C. fw cpinfo
- D. infoCP
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
CPInfo is an auto-updatable utility that collects diagnostics data on a customer's machine at the time of execution and uploads it to Check Point servers (it replaces the standalone cp_uploader utility for uploading files to Check Point servers).
The CPinfo output file allows analyzing customer setups from a remote location. Check Point support engineers can open the CPinfo file in a demo mode, while viewing actual customer Security Policies and Objects. This allows the in-depth analysis of customer's configuration and environment settings.
When contacting Check Point Support, collect the cpinfo files from the Security Management server and Security Gateways involved in your case.
NEW QUESTION 95
If the Active Security Management Server fails or if it becomes necessary to change the Active to Standby, the
following steps must be taken to prevent data loss. Providing the Active Security Management Server is
responsible, which of these steps should NOT be performed:
- A. Change the Active Security Management Server to Standby.
- B. Manually synchronize the Active and Standby Security Management Servers.
- C. Change the Standby Security Management Server to Active.
- D. Rename the hostname of the Standby member to match exactly the hostname of the Active member.
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 96
In the Check Point Security Management Architecture, which component(s) can store logs?
- A. Security Management Server and Security Gateway
- B. Security Management Server
- C. SmartConsole
- D. SmartConsole and Security Management Server
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 97
When launching SmartDashboard, what information is required to log into R77?
- A. User Name, Password, Management Server IP
- B. Password, Management Server IP, LDAP Server IP
- C. Password, Management Server IP
- D. User Name, Management Server IP, certificate fingerprint file
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 98
You can see the following graphic:
What is presented on it?
- A. Shared secret properties of John's password.
- B. Properties of personal .p12 certificate file issued for user John.
- C. Expired .p12 certificate properties for user John.
- D. VPN certificate properties of the John's gateway.
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 99
Which Check Point software blade provides Application Security and identity control?
- A. Data Loss Prevention
- B. Identity Awareness
- C. URL Filtering
- D. Application Control
Answer: D
Explanation:
Check Point Application Control provides the industry's strongest application security and identity control to organizations of all sizes.
Reference:
https://www.checkpoint.com/products/application-control-software-blade/
NEW QUESTION 100
Vanessa is attempting to log into the Gaia Web Portal. She is able to login successfully. Then she tries the same username and password for SmartConsole but gets the message in the screenshot image below.
She has checked that the IP address of the Server is correct and the username and password she used to login into Gaia is also correct.
What is the most likely reason?
- A. SmartConsole Authentication is not allowed for Vanessa until a Super administrator has logged in first and cleared any other administrator sessions.
- B. Check Point Management software authentication details are not automatically the same as the Operating System authentication details. Check that she is using the correct details.
- C. Check Point R80 SmartConsole authentication is more secure than in previous versions and Vanessa requires a special authentication key for R80 SmartConsole. Check that the correct key details are used.
- D. Authentication failed because Vanessa's username is not allowed in the new Threat Prevention console update checks even though these checks passed with Gaia.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
NEW QUESTION 101
Packages and licenses are loaded from all of these sources EXCEPT
- A. User Center
- B. Download Center Web site
- C. Check Point DVD
- D. UserUpdate
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
Packages and licenses are loaded into these repositories from several sources:
NEW QUESTION 102
View the rule below. What does the lock-symbol in the left column mean? Select the BEST answer.
- A. The current administrator has read-only permissions to Threat Prevention Policy.
- B. Another user has locked the rule for editing.
- C. The current administrator is logged in as read-only because someone else is editing the policy.
- D. Configuration lock is present. Click the lock symbol to gain read-write access.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Administrator Collaboration
More than one administrator can connect to the Security Management Server at the same time. Every administrator has their own username, and works in a session that is independent of the other administrators.
When an administrator logs in to the Security Management Server through SmartConsole, a new editing session starts. The changes that the administrator makes during the session are only available to that administrator. Other administrators see a lock icon on object and rules that are being edited.
To make changes available to all administrators, and to unlock the objects and rules that are being edited, the administrator must publish the session.
NEW QUESTION 103
Which Check Point software blade provides protection from zero-day and undiscovered threats?
- A. Application Control
- B. Threat Extraction
- C. Firewall
- D. Threat Emulation
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
SandBlast Threat Emulation
As part of the Next Generation Threat Extraction software bundle (NGTX), the SandBlast Threat Emulation capability prevents infections from undiscovered exploits zero-day and targeted attacks. This innovative solution quickly inspects files and runs them in a virtual sandbox to discover malicious behavior.
Discovered malware is prevented from entering the network.
NEW QUESTION 104
Fill in the blanks: A High Availability deployment is referred to as a ______ cluster and a Load Sharing deployment is referred to as a ________ cluster.
- A. Active/standby; active/active
- B. Active/active; active/standby;
- C. Active/active; standby/standby
- D. Standby/standby; active/active
Answer: A
Explanation:
In a High Availability cluster, only one member is active (Active/Standby operation).
ClusterXL Load Sharing distributes traffic within a cluster so that the total throughput of multiple members is increased. In Load Sharing configurations, all functioning members in the cluster are active, and handle network traffic (Active/Active operation).
NEW QUESTION 105
What are the three authentication methods for SIC?
- A. Packet Filtering, certificates, and 3DES or AES128 for encryption
- B. Certificates, standards-based SSL for the creation of secure channels, and 3DES or AES128 for encryption
- C. Certificates, Passwords, and Tokens
- D. Passwords, Users, and standards-based SSL for the creation of security channels
Answer: B
Explanation:
Secure Internal Communication (SIC)Secure Internal Communication (SIC) lets Check Point platforms and products authenticate with each other. The SIC procedure creates a trusted status between gateways, management servers and other Check Point components. SIC is required to install polices on gateways and to send logs between gateways and management servers.
These security measures make sure of the safety of SIC:
NEW QUESTION 106
What is the order of NAT priorities?
- A. Static NAT, hide NAT, IP pool NAT
- B. Static NAT, automatic NAT, hide NAT
- C. IP pool NAT, static NAT, hide NAT
- D. Static NAT, IP pool NAT, hide NAT
Answer: D
Explanation:
The order of NAT priorities is:
1. Static NAT
2. IP Pool NAT
3. Hide NAT
Since Static NAT has all of the advantages of IP Pool NAT and more, it has a higher priority than the other NAT methods.
Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R77/CP_R77_Firewall_WebAdmin/6724.htm#o6919
NEW QUESTION 107
Which of the following is NOT a VPN routing option available in a star community?
- A. To center and to other satellites through center
- B. To satellites through center only
- C. To center, or through the center to other satellites, to Internet and other VPN targets
- D. To center only
Answer: B,D
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
SmartConsole
For simple hubs and spokes (or if there is only one Hub), the easiest way is to configure a VPN star community in R80 SmartConsole:
1. On the Star Community window, in the:
a. Center Gateways section, select the Security Gateway that functions as the "Hub".
b. Satellite Gateways section, select Security Gateways as the "spokes", or satellites.
2. On the VPN Routing page, Enable VPN routing for satellites section, select one of these options:
a. To center and to other Satellites through center - This allows connectivity between the Security Gateways, for example if the spoke Security Gateways are DAIP Security Gateways, and the Hub is a Security Gateway with a static IP address.
b. To center, or through the center to other satellites, to internet and other VPN targets - This allows connectivity between the Security Gateways as well as the ability to inspect all communication passing through the Hub to the Internet.
3. Create an appropriate Access Control Policy rule.
4. NAT the satellite Security Gateways on the Hub if the Hub is used to route connections from Satellites to the Internet.
The two Dynamic Objects (DAIP Security Gateways) can securely route communication through the Security Gateway with the static IP address.
Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R80/CP_R80BC_VPN/html_frameset.htm
NEW QUESTION 108
Which of the following are types of VPN communicates?
- A. Combined and star
- B. Star, octagon, and combination
- C. Pentagon, star, and combination
- D. Meshed, star, and combination
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 109
What is NOT an advantage of Stateful Inspection?
- A. Transparency
- B. No Screening above Network layer
- C. High Performance
- D. Good Security
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
NEW QUESTION 110
What is the best sync method in the ClusterXL deployment?
- A. Use 3 clusters + 1st sync + 2nd sync + 3rd sync
- B. Use 1 cluster + 1st sync
- C. Use 2 clusters + 1st sync + 2nd sync
- D. Use 1 dedicated sync interface
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 111
Which two Identity Awareness commands are used to support identity sharing?
- A. Policy Enforcement Point (PEP) and Policy Manipulation Point (PMP)
- B. Policy Manipulation Point (PMP) and Policy Activation Point (PAP)
- C. Policy Activation Point (PAP) and Policy Decision Point (PDP)
- D. Policy Decision Point (PDP) and Policy Enforcement Point (PEP)
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
References:
NEW QUESTION 112
Administrator Dave logs into R80 Management Server to review and makes some rule changes. He notices that there is a padlock sign next to the DNS rule in the Rule Base.
What is the possible explanation for this?
- A. DNS Rule is a placeholder rule for a rule that existed in the past but was deleted.
- B. Another administrator is logged into the Management and currently editing the DNS Rule.
- C. DNS Rule is using one of the new features of R80 where an administrator can mark a rule with the padlock icon to let other administrators know it is important.
- D. This is normal behavior in R80 when there are duplicate rules in the Rule Base.
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 113
Which of the following is used to enforce changes made to a Rule Base?
- A. Activate policy
- B. Save changes
- C. Publish database
- D. Install policy
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
NEW QUESTION 114
Why would an administrator see the message below?
- A. A new Policy Package created on both the Management and Gateway will be deleted and must be packed up first before proceeding.
- B. A new Policy Package created on the Management is going to be installed to the existing Gateway.
- C. A new Policy Package created on the Gateway is going to be installed on the existing Management.
- D. A new Policy Package created on the Gateway and transferred to the management will be overwritten by the Policy Package currently on the Gateway but can be restored from a periodic backup on the Gateway.
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 115
What is the purpose of the Clean-up Rule?
- A. To eliminate duplicate log entries in the Security Gateway
- B. To log all traffic that is not explicitly allowed or denied in the Rule Base
- C. To remove all rules that could have a conflict with other rules in the database
- D. To clean up policies found inconsistent with the compliance blade reports
Answer: B
Explanation:
These are basic access control rules we recommend for all Rule Bases:
There is also an implied rule that drops all traffic, but you can use the Cleanup rule to log the traffic.
NEW QUESTION 116
The following graphic shows:
- A. View from SmartView Tracker for logs initiated from source address 10.1.1.202
- B. View from SmartView Monitor for logs initiated from source address 10.1.1.202
- C. View from SmartView Tracker for logs of destination address 10.1.1.202
- D. View from SmartLog for logs initiated from source address 10.1.1.202
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 117
In order to modify Security Policies the administrator can use which of the following tools? Select the BEST answer.
- A. SmartConsole and WebUI on the Security Management Server.
- B. SmartConsole or mgmt_cli on any computer where SmartConsole is installed.
- C. Command line of the Security Management Server or mgmt_cli.exe on any Windows computer.
- D. mgmt_cli or WebUI on Security Gateway and SmartConsole on the Security Management Server.
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 118
......
Pass 156-215.80 Tests Engine pdf - All Free Dumps: https://theexamcerts.lead2passexam.com/CheckPoint/valid-156-215.80-exam-dumps.html