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NEW QUESTION # 209
You are examining a full-term baby girl in the nursery. You notice that her left forefoot is adducted and supinated relative to the contralateral foot, which makes her left foot appear C-shaped. Which one of the following findings is most instrumental in deciding on the management of this issue?
- A. Significant hallux valgus
- B. Flexibility of the deformity
- C. Cephalohematoma
- D. Syndactyly of 2nd and 3rd toes
- E. Internal tibial torsion
Answer: B
Explanation:
The description is classic for metatarsus adductus. The most important clinical factor guiding management is whether the foot is flexible or rigid. Flexible deformities typically resolve spontaneously and do not require intervention.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Pediatrics, "Musculoskeletal Conditions":
"Metatarsus adductus: inward deviation of the forefoot. Management depends on flexibility. Flexible cases are benign and resolve spontaneously; rigid forms may need casting." MCCQE1 Objectives (Pediatrics > 78-2: Musculoskeletal Disorders):
"Candidates must assess and differentiate between flexible and rigid deformities to guide treatment in foot abnormalities." Other findings (B-E) are either unrelated or not determinant in metatarsus adductus management.
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NEW QUESTION # 210
A 69-year-old man presents with a 4-day history of a painful right knee. On history, he denies any trauma or similar previous episodes. Examination reveals effusion of the right knee that is warm to the touch. Which one of the following is the best next step?
- A. Serum uric acid level
- B. Intravenous antibiotics
- C. Right knee radiography
- D. Joint aspiration
- E. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs
Answer: D
Explanation:
The first step in evaluating a new, hot, swollen joint is arthrocentesis to rule out septic arthritis and crystal arthropathy. Joint aspiration provides fluid for microscopy, culture, and crystal analysis, which guides definitive diagnosis and treatment.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Rheumatology, Monoarthritis:
"Joint aspiration is the most important first step in evaluating monoarthritis. Septic arthritis must be ruled out before initiating any therapy." MCCQE1 Objectives - Internal Medicine > Rheumatology:
"Candidates should perform joint aspiration in the presence of acute monoarthritis to differentiate between septic arthritis, gout, and other causes." Radiography (A) and serum uric acid (B) do not establish cause acutely. Empiric antibiotics (D) and NSAIDs (E) should only be started after ruling out septic arthritis.
NEW QUESTION # 211
A 25-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with a 4-hour history of severe left flank pain.
Her vital signs are as follows:
* Heart rate: 94/min
* Blood pressure: 130/80 mm Hg
* Temperature: 37.3 °C
A non-contrast computed tomography shows a 6 mm stone in the distal left ureter with mild associated hydronephrosis. In addition to appropriate analgesia, which one of the following is the best next step?
- A. Refer for urology consultation
- B. Provide reassurance
- C. Prescribe antibiotics
- D. Increase intravenous fluids
- E. Administer an alpha blocker
Answer: E
Explanation:
Alpha blockers such as tamsulosin can facilitate the passage of ureteral stones, especially those between 5-10 mm. This is part of medical expulsive therapy.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Urology, Nephrolithiasis:
"Alpha blockers help relax the ureteral smooth muscle and improve stone passage in symptomatic distal ureteral stones." MCCQE1 Objectives - Surgery > Urologic Emergencies:
"Candidates should initiate medical expulsive therapy for ureteral stones under 10 mm with alpha blockers." Reassurance alone (A) is inadequate. Antibiotics (B) are not indicated without infection. IV fluids (E) do not significantly aid stone passage. Urology consult (D) is not needed unless there's infection, intractable pain, or obstruction.
NEW QUESTION # 212
A 55-year-old woman presents with a 6-month history of poor memory and impaired concentration. She has bipolar I disorder that has been treated with lithium carbonate for 4 years. She has gained a lot of weight since starting lithium. Physical examination findings are otherwise normal. She is concerned about her memory issues, but there are no other perception, mood, or cognition abnormalities. Which one of the following tests is most likely to have abnormal findings?
- A. Serum sodium level
- B. Creatinine clearance
- C. Serum thyrotropin (thyroid-stimulating hormone) level
- D. Liver function tests
- E. Parathyroid hormone
Answer: C
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:
Lithium commonly causes hypothyroidism, which can lead to fatigue, cognitive slowing, weight gain, and memory impairment. Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) levels are often elevated in such cases.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Psychiatry / Endocrinology:
"Lithium is associated with hypothyroidism and renal impairment. Monitor TSH regularly in patients on lithium therapy." MCCQE1 Objectives (Psychiatry > 71-5: Mood Stabilizers):
"Candidates must recognize the endocrine side effects of lithium, including hypothyroidism and the importance of TSH monitoring." Creatinine clearance (C) may also be affected but is less directly associated with memory issues. Liver function (A), sodium (D), and PTH (E) are not typically the first abnormal values in this presentation.
NEW QUESTION # 213
A 24-year-old man presents to your clinic with a 6-month history of fatigue. On examination, he is pale. His BMI is 16, and his blood pressure is 92/58 mm Hg. Initial laboratory work shows the following:
* Creatinine: 64 µmol/L (49-93)
* Potassium: 3.0 mmol/L (3.5-5.1)
* Sodium: 138 mmol/L (136-146)
* TSH: 2.40 mIU/L (0.34-5.60)
* CBC: Normal
Which one of the following is the best next step?
- A. Advise increased caloric intake
- B. Consult gastroenterology
- C. Ask permission to discuss the patient's weight
- D. Refer the patient to the emergency department
Answer: C
Explanation:
This patient has clinical signs of an eating disorder - fatigue, low BMI, hypotension, and hypokalemia - likely secondary to nutritional deficiencies or purging. The first step is to sensitively explore the patient's perception of weight and body image. Effective management requires rapport and careful conversation.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Psychiatry, Eating Disorders:
"Approach patients with suspected eating disorders non-judgmentally. Begin with permission to discuss weight or body image. Screening tools like SCOFF can help guide further assessment." MCCQE1 Objectives - Psychiatry > Eating Disorders:
"Candidates must recognize signs of eating disorders and initiate a respectful and effective patient-centered discussion." Referring to the ED (B) is not urgent without hemodynamic instability. Advising caloric intake (C) bypasses assessment. GI referral (D) is not appropriate at this stage.
NEW QUESTION # 214
A 26-year-old woman, gravida 2, para 2, aborta 0, has just delivered a full-term newborn via spontaneous vaginal delivery after 4 hours of labor. Following oxytocin administration and placental expulsion, there continues to be a steady trickle of bright red blood from her vagina. On examination, the placenta is intact and the fundus feels firm. Her vital signs are within normal range.
Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
- A. Uterine atony
- B. Disseminated intravascular coagulopathy
- C. Retained products of conception
- D. Uterine rupture
- E. Vaginal or cervical tear
Answer: E
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:
In postpartum hemorrhage with a firm uterine fundus and intact placenta, a common cause is trauma such as a vaginal or cervical tear. Uterine atony (A) typically presents with a boggy uterus. The absence of systemic instability or coagulopathy makes options D and E less likely.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Obstetrics, Postpartum Hemorrhage:
"Continued bleeding despite a firm fundus and intact placenta should raise suspicion for genital tract trauma, especially cervical or vaginal lacerations." MCCQE1 Objectives - Obstetrics > Postpartum Complications:
"Candidates must differentiate causes of postpartum hemorrhage and identify when bleeding is due to trauma vs uterine atony."
NEW QUESTION # 215
You are called to the Emergency Department to see a 6-month-old boy with a 3-day history of fever. Physical examination reveals an irritable infant with a temperature of 38.1°C. His vital signs are:
Blood pressure: 87/50 mm Hg
Respiratory rate: 80/min
Heart rate: 140/min
Oxygen saturation: 92% on room air
The infant has no skin findings. On chest examination, you hear coarse crackles on the right side of the chest.
Which one of the following is the best next step in the management of this child?
- A. Oral antibiotics.
- B. Intravenous fluids.
- C. Reassurance.
- D. Oral steroids.
- E. Intravenous antibiotics.
Answer: E
Explanation:
This 6-month-old presents with signs of systemic illness, tachypnea, hypoxia, and focal lung findings. In this age group, pneumonia can rapidly progress, and given the severity of symptoms, oral treatment is insufficient.
Intravenous antibiotics are urgently indicated.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Pediatrics, Respiratory Infections in Infants:
"Infants under 6 months with signs of systemic illness, hypoxia (SpO2 < 94%), and respiratory distress should receive IV antibiotics. Delayed treatment may result in rapid clinical deterioration." MCCQE1 Objectives - Pediatrics > Respiratory Conditions:
"Candidates must recognize signs of serious lower respiratory tract infection in infants and initiate prompt IV antibiotic therapy when criteria for hospitalization are met." Oral antibiotics (C) are appropriate for mild outpatient pneumonia. Reassurance (B) and oral steroids (A) are inappropriate. IV fluids (D) may be supportive but do not address the infectious cause.
NEW QUESTION # 216
A 72-year-old woman presents with swelling of her right leg that developed overnight. She had an abdominal hysterectomy 10 days ago. On examination, there is pitting edema of the leg that extends from the foot to the groin. The calf is 3 cm larger in diameter than the calf on the left leg. Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
- A. Iliofemoral vein thrombosis.
- B. Phlegmasia cerulea dolens.
- C. Inadvertent ligation of the iliac vein.
- D. Superficial thrombophlebitis.
- E. Angioedema of the leg.
Answer: A
Explanation:
This patient has classic features of proximal deep vein thrombosis (DVT) after recent major pelvic surgery:
acute unilateral leg swelling with pitting edema and a significant calf circumference difference ( > 3 cm). The edema extending from foot to groin strongly suggests a proximal (iliofemoral) thrombosis, which produces more extensive swelling than calf-vein DVT because venous outflow from the entire limb is impaired.
MCCQE objectives highlight postoperative patients as high risk for venous thromboembolism due to immobility, endothelial injury, and hypercoagulability.
Superficial thrombophlebitis typically causes a localized, tender, palpable cord along a superficial vein rather than diffuse whole-leg edema. Phlegmasia cerulea dolens is a severe, limb-threatening form of massive DVT characterized by marked pain, tense
NEW QUESTION # 217
A 45-year-old woman presents to your clinic for follow-up regarding her asthma. She is planning to attend a cultural event that includes ceremonial burning of tobacco. Which one of the following is the best next step?
- A. Update the chart to indicate that the patient smokes.
- B. Ask if tobacco smoke triggers the patient's asthma.
- C. Advise the patient to avoid tobacco exposure.
- D. Counsel the patient on the health effects of tobacco.
Answer: B
Explanation:
The best next step is to assess whether smoke exposure is a known trigger for this patient's asthma. MCCQE objectives emphasize patient-centred, culturally safe care and risk assessment before giving directive advice.
Ceremonial tobacco burning can produce smoke exposure similar to other irritants; however, not all patients react the same way, and the clinician should first clarify the patient's history of symptom provocation with smoke (tobacco, incense, campfire) and the severity of prior reactions. This information guides individualized prevention strategies, such as ensuring optimal controller use, carrying a reliever inhaler, positioning away from dense smoke, limiting duration of exposure, and having an action plan if symptoms develop.
Updating the chart to indicate the patient smokes is inappropriate because participation in a ceremony does not equal smoking. General counselling about tobacco health effects can be relevant but is not the immediate priority and may be culturally insensitive if it ignores the context. Advising avoidance may unnecessarily disrupt culturally important participation and should come only after assessing risk and discussing mitigation options.
NEW QUESTION # 218
You are an attending physician at a palliative care unit and are asked to see an 80-year-old woman who is dying of lung cancer. She has been unresponsive for the last 2 days and had her last dose of morphine 4 hours ago. Her son just arrived in town this afternoon and pleads with you to wake her up so she can sign her will.
Which one of the following is the best next step?
- A. Hold scheduled doses of morphine.
- B. Arrange for a legal opinion.
- C. Request a consultation with the hospital ethicist.
- D. Explain the normal changes at this stage of illness.
- E. Prescribe naloxone to increase her alertness.
Answer: D
Explanation:
At the end of life, decreasing consciousness and unresponsiveness are common and expected physiologic changes. MCCQE ELOM objectives emphasize prioritizing patient comfort, respecting goals of care, and communicating clearly with families about prognosis and the dying process. The best next step is to explain that her reduced level of consciousness is most consistent with imminent dying and that she is unlikely to have the decision-making capacity required to execute legal documents (capacity requires understanding and appreciation of the decision and its consequences).
Withholding morphine to attempt to increase alertness risks causing pain and dyspnea, violating the duty to relieve suffering. Administering naloxone is inappropriate because it may precipitate acute pain and distress and is not indicated when opioids are being used appropriately for symptom control. A legal opinion or ethics consult may be considered later if conflict persists, but the immediate priority is compassionate communication, clarifying that "waking her to sign" is unlikely feasible or ethically justified, and supporting the son through anticipatory grief while continuing comfort-focused care.
NEW QUESTION # 219
An 83-year-old woman presents to your office with a 2-day history of confusion. Her past medical history is significant for lung cancer, and she is being treated with radiation. On physical examination, she is euvolemic.
Her blood work reveals a serum sodium of 118 mmol/L (135-140) as compared with 134 mmol/L (8 days ago). Which one of the following will be most helpful in establishing the cause of her laboratory abnormality?
- A. Serum osmolality
- B. Creatinine clearance
- C. Urine sodium
- D. Urinalysis
- E. Parathyroid hormone-related peptide
Answer: A
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:
Hyponatremia in a patient with lung cancer and euvolemia strongly suggests syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH), especially from small cell carcinoma. Serum osmolality is the best initial test to confirm hypotonic hyponatremia and distinguish true hyponatremia from pseudohyponatremia or other causes.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Endocrinology, "Hyponatremia":
"Serum osmolality helps classify hyponatremia as hypotonic, isotonic, or hypertonic. SIADH typically causes hypotonic hyponatremia in euvolemic patients." MCCQE1 Objectives (Endocrinology > 37-1: Electrolyte Disorders):
"Candidates must evaluate the type and cause of hyponatremia using clinical status and laboratory tests including serum osmolality." Urine sodium (B) is useful after confirming hypotonicity. PTHrP (E) is associated with hypercalcemia of malignancy, not hyponatremia. Urinalysis (A) and CrCl (D) are less directly informative.
NEW QUESTION # 220
You are the emergency physician on duty in a rural hospital when heavy rains in the community cause a large landslide. There are multiple casualties expected to arrive in the emergency department. Your colleague has heard about the incident and arrives to help. Which one of the following is the best next step?
- A. Ask your colleague to handle media inquiries
- B. Send your colleague to set up an emergency type O blood bank collecting unit
- C. Ask your colleague to help triage incoming patients in the emergency department
- D. Send your colleague to the affected area to evaluate the health risks involved
Answer: C
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:
During mass casualty incidents, effective triage is essential to optimize care delivery. A trained physician is best used in triage or direct care. Triage is the foundation of disaster management.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Public Health / Disaster Medicine:
"In disaster response, trained healthcare providers should be deployed to triage and stabilize patients in emergency departments." MCCQE1 Objectives (Public Health > 65-1: Disaster Response):
"Candidates must understand principles of mass casualty management and assign appropriate roles during triage and care delivery." Media (D) and logistics (A, C) are secondary roles. Triage and direct care take priority.
NEW QUESTION # 221
A young man and woman who are in a relationship present to the office for prenatal counselling. During the visit, you observe that the man's lips appear as shown in the referenced photo.
[Image shows grouped vesicular lesions on erythematous base affecting the lips-classic for herpes labialis (HSV-1).] Which one of the following is the best advice?
- A. The woman should take acyclovir throughout her pregnancy
- B. The woman must have a cesarean delivery
- C. The woman should have viral cultures of her cervix
- D. The man needs herpes simplex virus type-specific serology
- E. The man should avoid performing oral sex during her pregnancy
Answer: E
Explanation:
The patient shows signs of herpes labialis (HSV-1), which can transmit genital herpes via oral sex. This poses a risk to the fetus if maternal infection occurs during pregnancy, especially near delivery. Preventing new genital HSV infection during pregnancy is critical.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Obstetrics:
"HSV-1 can cause genital herpes via oral-genital transmission. Avoid oral sex during outbreaks in pregnancy to prevent primary maternal infection." MCCQE1 Objectives (Obstetrics > 80-3: Infectious Disease in Pregnancy):
"Candidates must understand the importance of preventing new HSV infection during pregnancy and counsel appropriately." Culture (A) is not useful unless symptomatic. Serology (B) is not needed in this context. Cesarean (D) is not indicated unless active genital lesions at delivery. Acyclovir (C) is for infected mothers or near delivery.
NEW QUESTION # 222
A mother brings her 1-month-old infant for routine health examination. The infant was born at term with no complications. He is exclusively breastfed every 3-4 hours and growth parameters are normal. His mother tells you that feedings are difficult (the baby cries any time she tries to put him down) and that she is exhausted. Her husband has been on a military mission since the infant was 2-weeks-old. Which one of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- A. Inquire about symptoms of depression.
- B. Reassure that this is a normal phase.
- C. Refer to a lactation consultant.
- D. Increase the frequency of the feeds.
- E. Suggest a switch to hypoallergenic infant formula.
Answer: A
Explanation:
The most appropriate next step is to screen for postpartum depression . MCCQE objectives emphasize the importance of assessing maternal mental health at routine infant visits, particularly in the first months postpartum. This mother reports exhaustion, difficulty coping, and limited social support (husband deployed), all of which are risk factors for postpartum depression. Although infant growth is normal and frequent crying at 1 month can be physiologic (e.g., colic/normal infant behavior), the key clinical issue is maternal distress and functional impairment.
Postpartum depression can present with fatigue, irritability, sleep disturbance beyond expected newborn care, feelings of being overwhelmed, and impaired bonding. Early identification through targeted questioning or validated screening tools (e.g., Edinburgh Postnatal Depression Scale) allows timely intervention, which benefits both mother and infant.
Simply reassuring her may miss significant depressive symptoms. Increasing feeds or switching formula is not indicated with normal growth and no allergy signs. Lactation referral may help feeding mechanics but does not address maternal psychological well-being. Therefore, screening for depression is the priority.
NEW QUESTION # 223
A 30-year-old woman presents to your office for a follow-up assessment of a sports-related musculoskeletal injury to her right leg. She requests a letter for her employer regarding her return to work. You feel she should be able to manage some aspects of her factory work. Which one of the following is most appropriate to include in your medical note to this patient's employer?
- A. Required workplace accommodations
- B. Physiotherapist's evaluation
- C. Diagnosis
- D. Treatment options
- E. Medical imaging results
Answer: A
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:
In a workplace medical note, physicians are responsible for commenting on the patient's functional capacity and any required accommodations-not providing detailed medical diagnoses or test results unless consented to. The goal is to support a safe return to work with appropriate modifications.
Toronto Notes 2023 - ELOM, "Documentation and Work Notes":
"Physicians should focus on functional abilities and restrictions, rather than detailed diagnoses or treatments, in employer communications." MCCQE1 Objectives (ELOM > 90-2: Confidentiality and Occupational Fitness):
"Candidates must maintain patient confidentiality and document work-related limitations and accommodations in employer letters." Diagnosis (B), imaging (E), and treatment plans (A) are confidential medical details. C (physiotherapist's evaluation) is not the physician's documentation.
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NEW QUESTION # 224
You performed a surgical procedure on a 32-year-old woman for a herniated disk that was causing neurologic impairment. At the 8-month follow-up visit, she has healed well; however, she requests a prescription renewal of her narcotic analgesics (hydromorphone). Her pharmacy confirms that the patient adheres to the dosage you prescribed, that she has not consulted other physicians, and that her behavior has always been respectful.
You think that she no longer requires narcotic analgesics. Which one of the following approaches is most helpful to the patient?
- A. Counsel the patient regarding substance use disorder and arrange follow-up with her family physician.
- B. Advise the provincial or territorial agency responsible for following patients who have potential substance use disorders.
- C. Change the patient's prescription from short-acting hydromorphone to once-daily methadone.
- D. Replace short-acting hydromorphone with transdermal fentanyl.
- E. Decline the renewal of further hydromorphone and discharge the patient.
Answer: A
Explanation:
The patient's pain is no longer medically justified for opioids, but there is no evidence of misuse. The most appropriate and supportive action is to explain concerns, provide education about opioid tapering or dependency, and transition care to her family physician for ongoing management.
Toronto Notes 2023 - ELOM, "Safe Prescribing and Opioid Stewardship" Section:
"When opioids are no longer indicated, engage the patient in a conversation about tapering and arrange appropriate follow-up. Coordinate care with primary providers when long-term management is needed." MCCQE1 Objectives (ELOM > 99-1: Professionalism and Substance Use):
"Candidates must address the risk of dependency, counsel the patient, and ensure a safe transition to appropriate care without abrupt termination." Methadone (E) and fentanyl (A) are for opioid use disorder or chronic pain, not for tapering in low-risk patients. Discharging the patient (B) or reporting (C) is punitive and unnecessary.
NEW QUESTION # 225
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