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CompTIA N10-009 Exam Syllabus Topics:
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NEW QUESTION # 56
Which of the following IP transmission types encrypts all of the transmitted data?
- A. AH
- B. GRE
- C. TC
- D. UDP
- E. ESP
Answer: E
Explanation:
P
Explanation:
Definition of ESP (Encapsulating Security Payload):
ESP is a part of the IPsec protocol suite used to provide confidentiality, integrity, and authenticity of data. ESP encrypts the payload and optional ESP trailer, providing data confidentiality.
ESP Functionality:
ESP can encrypt the entire IP packet, ensuring that the data within the packet is secure from interception or eavesdropping. It also provides options for data integrity and authentication.
ESP operates in two modes: transport mode (encrypts only the payload of the IP packet) and tunnel mode (encrypts the entire IP packet).
Comparison with Other Protocols:
AH (Authentication Header): Provides data integrity and authentication but does not encrypt the payload.
GRE (Generic Routing Encapsulation): A tunneling protocol that does not provide encryption.
UDP (User Datagram Protocol) and TCP (Transmission Control Protocol): These are transport layer protocols that do not inherently provide encryption. Encryption must be provided by additional protocols like TLS/SSL.
Use Cases:
ESP is widely used in VPNs (Virtual Private Networks) to ensure secure communication over untrusted networks like the internet.
Reference:
CompTIA Network+ study materials on IPsec and encryption.
NEW QUESTION # 57
Which of the following steps of the troubleshooting methodology would most likely include checking through each level of the OSI model after the problem has been identified?
- A. Verify functionality.
- B. Establish a theory.
- C. Implement the solution.
- D. Create a plan of action.
Answer: A
Explanation:
* Introduction to Troubleshooting Methodology:
* Network troubleshooting involves a systematic approach to identifying and resolving network
* issues. The CompTIA Network+ certification emphasizes a structured troubleshooting methodology.
* Troubleshooting Steps:
* Identify the problem: Gather information, identify symptoms, and question users.
* Establish a theory of probable cause: Consider possible reasons for the issue.
* Test the theory to determine cause: Validate the theory with tests.
* Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem and implement the solution: Create and execute a resolution plan.
* Verify functionality and implement preventive measures: Ensure the solution works and prevent recurrence.
* Verifying Functionality:
* After implementing a solution, verifying functionality ensures that the problem is fully resolved.
This involves testing the network to confirm that it operates correctly.
* Checking through each level of the OSI model helps to ensure that all potential issues at different layers (physical, data link, network, transport, session, presentation, and application) are addressed.
* Explanation of the Options:
* A. Establish a theory: This step involves hypothesizing possible causes, not verifying functionality.
* B. Implement the solution: This step involves executing the resolution plan.
* C. Create a plan of action: This step involves planning the resolution, not verification.
* D. Verify functionality: This step involves comprehensive checks, including OSI model layers, to ensure the issue is fully resolved.
* Conclusion:
* Verifying functionality is a critical step in the troubleshooting process, ensuring that the network operates correctly after a solution is implemented. It involves thorough testing across all OSI model layers.
References:
* CompTIA Network+ guide explaining the troubleshooting methodology and the importance of verifying functionality (see page Ref 9†Basic Configuration Commands).
NEW QUESTION # 58
SIMULATION
Users are unable to access files on their department share located on flle_server 2. The network administrator has been tasked with validating routing between networks hosting workstation A and file server 2.
INSTRUCTIONS
Click on each router to review output, identity any Issues, and configure the appropriate solution If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of trie simulation, please click the reset All button;
Answer:
Explanation:
See the solution configuration below in Explanation.
NEW QUESTION # 59
Which of the following is the most closely associated with segmenting compute resources within a single cloud account?
- A. laaS
- B. Network security group
- C. Hybrid cloud
- D. VPC
Answer: D
Explanation:
A Virtual Private Cloud (VPC) is most closely associated with segmenting compute resources within a single cloud account. A VPC allows you to define a virtual network that closely resembles a traditional network, complete with subnets, route tables, and gateways. This segmentation enables the isolation of different parts of a network within a cloud environment, ensuring security and efficient resource management. VPCs are a key component in many cloud infrastructures, providing the flexibility to manage and control network settings and resources.
Reference: CompTIA Network+ Certification Exam Objectives - Cloud Models section.
NEW QUESTION # 60
A company is hosting a secure that requires all connections to the server to be encrypted. A junior administrator needs to harded the web server. The following ports on the web server. The following ports on the web server are open:
Which of the following ports should be disabled?
- A. 0
- B. 1
- C. 2
- D. 3
Answer: C
Explanation:
For a web server that requires all connections to be encrypted, port 80 (HTTP) should be disabled. Port 80 is used for unencrypted web traffic, whereas port 443 is used for HTTPS, which provides encrypted communication.
* Port 80 (HTTP): This port is used for unsecured web traffic. Disabling this port ensures that all web traffic must use HTTPS, which encrypts the data in transit.
* Port 443 (HTTPS): This port is used for secure web traffic via SSL/TLS encryption. Keeping this port open ensures that secure connections can be made to the web server.
* Other Ports:
* Port 22: Used for SSH, providing secure remote access and file transfers.
* Port 587: Used for secure email submission (SMTP) with encryption.
Network References:
* CompTIA Network+ N10-007 Official Certification Guide: Discusses the roles and security implications of various ports and protocols.
* Cisco Networking Academy: Provides training on secure web server configuration and port management.
* Network+ Certification All-in-One Exam Guide: Covers port security and best practices for securing web servers.
NEW QUESTION # 61
Which of the following fiber connector types is the most likely to be used on a network interface card?
- A. LC
- B. SC
- C. ST
- D. MPO
Answer: A
Explanation:
Definition of Fiber Connector Types:
LC (Lucent Connector): A small form-factor fiber optic connector with a push-pull latching mechanism, commonly used for high-density applications.
SC (Subscriber Connector or Standard Connector): A larger form-factor connector with a push-pull latching mechanism, often used in datacom and telecom applications.
ST (Straight Tip): A bayonet-style connector, typically used in multimode fiber optic networks.
MPO (Multi-fiber Push On): A connector designed to support multiple fibers (typically 12 or 24 fibers), used in high-density cabling environments.
Common Usage:
LC Connectors: Due to their small size, LC connectors are widely used in network interface cards (NICs) and high-density environments such as data centers. They allow for more connections in a smaller space compared to SC and ST connectors.
SC and ST Connectors: These are larger and more commonly used in patch panels and older fiber installations but are less suitable for high-density applications.
MPO Connectors: Primarily used for trunk cables in data centers and high-density applications but not typically on individual network interface cards.
Selection Criteria:
The small form-factor and high-density capabilities of LC connectors make them the preferred choice for network interface cards, where space and connection density are critical considerations.
Reference:
CompTIA Network+ study materials on fiber optics and connector types.
NEW QUESTION # 62
A network architect needs to create a wireless field network to provide reliable service to public safety vehicles. Which of the following types of networks is the best solution?
- A. Ad hoc
- B. Mesh
- C. Infrastructure
- D. Point-to-point
Answer: B
Explanation:
A mesh network is the best solution for providing reliable wireless service to public safety vehicles. In a mesh network, each node (vehicle) can connect to multiple other nodes, providing multiple paths for data to travel.
This enhances reliability and redundancy, ensuring continuous connectivity even if one or more nodes fail.
Mesh networks are highly resilient and are well-suited for dynamic and mobile environments such as public safety operations.References:CompTIA Network+ study materials.
NEW QUESTION # 63
A storage network requires reduced overhead and increased efficiency for the amout of data being sent.
Which of the following should an engineer likely configure to meet these requirements>?
- A. 802.1q tagging
- B. QoS
- C. Link speed
- D. Jumbo frames
Answer: D
Explanation:
Jumbo frames are Ethernet frames with a payload greater than the standard maximum transmission unit (MTU) of 1500 bytes. Configuring jumbo frames can reduce overhead and increase efficiency in storage networks by allowing more data to be sent in each frame, thus reducing the number of frames needed to transmit the same amount of data.
* Reduced Overhead: By sending larger frames, the relative overhead for headers and acknowledgments is reduced.
* Increased Efficiency: Larger frames mean fewer packets to process, leading to better utilization of network bandwidth and improved performance in high-throughput environments like storage networks.
* Configuration: Requires support from all devices in the network path, including switches and network interface cards (NICs).
Network References:
* CompTIA Network+ N10-007 Official Certification Guide: Explains jumbo frames and their benefits in reducing network overhead.
* Cisco Networking Academy: Provides training on network optimization techniques, including the use of jumbo frames.
* Network+ Certification All-in-One Exam Guide: Covers advanced Ethernet features, including jumbo frames and their configuration for improved network performance.
NEW QUESTION # 64
A network administrator wants to configure a backup route in case the primary route fails. A dynamic routing protocol is not installed on the router. Which of the following routing features should the administrator choose to accomplish this task?
- A. Neighbor adjacency
- B. Link state flooding
- C. Administrative distance
- D. Hop count
Answer: C
Explanation:
* Introduction to Administrative Distance
* Administrative distance (AD) is a value used by routers to rank routes from different routing protocols. AD represents the trustworthiness of the source of the route. Lower AD values are more preferred. If a router has multiple routes to a destination from different sources, it will choose the route with the lowest AD.
* Static Routes and Backup Routes
* When a dynamic routing protocol is not used, static routes can be employed. Static routes are manually configured routes. To ensure a backup route, multiple static routes to the same destination can be configured with different AD values.
* Configuring Static Routes with Administrative Distance
* The primary route is configured with a lower AD value, making it the preferred route. The backup route is configured with a higher AD value. In the event of the primary route failure, the router will then use the backup route.
* Example Configuration:
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ip route 192.168.1.0 255.255.255.0 10.0.0.1 1
ip route 192.168.1.0 255.255.255.0 10.0.0.2 10
* In the above example,192.168.1.0/24is the destination network.
* 10.0.0.1is the next-hop IP address for the primary route with an AD of 1.
* 10.0.0.2is the next-hop IP address for the backup route with an AD of 10.
* Verification:
* After configuration, use theshow ip routecommand to verify that the primary route is in use and the backup route is listed as a candidate for use if the primary route fails.
References:
* CompTIA Network+ guide explains the concept of administrative distance and its use in static routing configuration (see pageRef 9†Basic Configuration Commands).
NEW QUESTION # 65
A network administrator needs to set up a multicast network for audio and video broadcasting. Which of the following networks would be the most appropriate for this application?
- A. 224.0.0.0/24
- B. 172.16.0.0/24
- C. 192.168.0.0/24
- D. 240.0.0.0/24
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 66
Which of the following protocols has a default administrative distance value of 90?
- A. BGP
- B. RIP
- C. EIGRP
- D. OSPF
Answer: C
Explanation:
EIGRP (Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol) has a default administrative distance (AD) value of 90 for internal routes. The administrative distance is used to rate the trustworthiness of routing information received from different routing protocols. EIGRP, developed by Cisco, has an AD of 90, which is lower than that of RIP (120) and OSPF (110), making it more preferred if multiple protocols provide a route to the same destination.References:CompTIA Network+ study materials.
NEW QUESTION # 67
A client wants to increase overall security after a recent breach. Which of the following would be best to implement? (Select two.)
- A. Dynamic inventeries
- B. Configuration drift prevention
- C. Least privilege network access
- D. Zero-touch provisioning
- E. Central policy management
- F. Subnet range limits
Answer: C,E
Explanation:
To increase overall security after a recent breach, implementing least privilege network access and central policy management are effective strategies.
* Least Privilege Network Access: This principle ensures that users and devices are granted only the access necessary to perform their functions, minimizing the potential for unauthorized access or breaches. By limiting permissions, the risk of an attacker gaining access to critical parts of the network is reduced.
* Central Policy Management: Centralized management of security policies allows for consistent and streamlined implementation of security measures across the entire network. This helps in quickly responding to security incidents, ensuring compliance with security protocols, and reducing the chances of misconfigurations.
Network References:
* CompTIA Network+ N10-007 Official Certification Guide: Discusses network security principles, including least privilege and policy management.
* Cisco Networking Academy: Provides training on implementing security policies and access controls.
* Network+ Certification All-in-One Exam Guide: Covers strategies for enhancing network security and managing policies effectively.
NEW QUESTION # 68
Which of the following should a network administrator configure when adding OT devices to an organization's architecture?
- A. Time-based authentication
- B. Network segmentation
- C. Data-at-rest encryption
- D. Honeynet
Answer: B
Explanation:
Network segmentation involves dividing a network into smaller segments or subnets. This is particularly important when integrating OT (Operational Technology) devices to ensure that these devices are isolated from other parts of the network. Segmentation helps protect the OT devices from potential threats and minimizes the impact of any security incidents. It also helps manage traffic and improves overall network performance.
Reference: CompTIA Network+ study materials.
NEW QUESTION # 69
A network administrator wants to configure a backup route in case the primary route fails. A dynamic routing protocol is not installed on the router. Which of the following routing features should the administrator choose to accomplish this task?
- A. Neighbor adjacency
- B. Link state flooding
- C. Administrative distance
- D. Hop count
Answer: C
Explanation:
Introduction to Administrative Distance
Administrative distance (AD) is a value used by routers to rank routes from different routing protocols. AD represents the trustworthiness of the source of the route. Lower AD values are more preferred. If a router has multiple routes to a destination from different sources, it will choose the route with the lowest AD.
Static Routes and Backup Routes
When a dynamic routing protocol is not used, static routes can be employed. Static routes are manually configured routes. To ensure a backup route, multiple static routes to the same destination can be configured with different AD values.
Configuring Static Routes with Administrative Distance
The primary route is configured with a lower AD value, making it the preferred route. The backup route is configured with a higher AD value. In the event of the primary route failure, the router will then use the backup route.
Example Configuration:
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ip route 192.168.1.0 255.255.255.0 10.0.0.1 1
ip route 192.168.1.0 255.255.255.0 10.0.0.2 10
In the above example, 192.168.1.0/24 is the destination network.
10.0.0.1 is the next-hop IP address for the primary route with an AD of 1.
10.0.0.2 is the next-hop IP address for the backup route with an AD of 10.
Verification:
After configuration, use the show ip route command to verify that the primary route is in use and the backup route is listed as a candidate for use if the primary route fails.
Reference:
CompTIA Network+ guide explains the concept of administrative distance and its use in static routing configuration (see page Ref 9fasic Configuration Commands).
NEW QUESTION # 70
A network administrator needs to connect two routers in a point-to-point configuration and conserve IP space. Which of the following subnets should the administrator use?
- A. /28
- B. /26
- C. /30
- D. 0
Answer: C
Explanation:
Using a /30 subnet mask is the most efficient way to conserve IP space for a point-to-point connection between two routers. A /30 subnet provides four IP addresses, two of which can be assigned to the router interfaces, one for the network address, and one for the broadcast address. This makes it ideal for point-to-point links where only two usable IP addresses are needed.
Reference: CompTIA Network+ study materials and subnetting principles.
NEW QUESTION # 71
A network manager wants to implement a SIEM system to correlate system events. Which of the following protocols should the network manager verify?
- A. DHCP
- B. DNS
- C. LDAP
- D. NTP
Answer: D
Explanation:
Role of NTP (Network Time Protocol):
NTP is used to synchronize the clocks of network devices to a reference time source. Accurate time synchronization is critical for correlating events and logs from different systems.
Importance for SIEM Systems:
Event Correlation: SIEM (Security Information and Event Management) systems collect and analyze log data from various sources. Accurate timestamps are essential for correlating events across multiple systems.
Time Consistency: Without synchronized time, it is challenging to piece together the sequence of events during an incident, making forensic analysis difficult.
Comparison with Other Protocols:
DNS (Domain Name System): Translates domain names to IP addresses but is not related to time synchronization.
LDAP (Lightweight Directory Access Protocol): Used for directory services, such as user authentication and authorization.
DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol): Assigns IP addresses to devices on a network but does not handle time synchronization.
Implementation:
Ensure that all network devices, servers, and endpoints are synchronized using NTP. This can be achieved by configuring devices to use an NTP server, which could be a local server or an external time source.
Reference:
CompTIA Network+ study materials on network protocols and SIEM systems.
NEW QUESTION # 72
A network engineer is designing a secure communication link between two sites. The entire data stream needs to remain confidential. Which of the following will achieve this goal?
- A. AH
- B. GRE
- C. IKE
- D. ESP
Answer: D
Explanation:
* Definition of ESP (Encapsulating Security Payload):
* ESP is a part of the IPsec protocol suite designed to provide confidentiality, integrity, and authenticity of data by encrypting the payload and optional ESP trailer.
* Ensuring Confidentiality:
* Encryption:ESP encrypts the payload, ensuring that the data remains confidential during transmission. Only authorized parties with the correct decryption keys can access the data.
* Modes of Operation:ESP can operate in transport mode (encrypts only the payload) or tunnel mode (encrypts the entire IP packet), both providing strong encryption to secure data between sites.
* Comparison with Other Protocols:
* GRE (Generic Routing Encapsulation):A tunneling protocol that does not provide encryption or security features.
* IKE (Internet Key Exchange):A protocol used to set up a secure, authenticated communications channel, but it does not encrypt the data itself.
* AH (Authentication Header):Provides integrity and authentication for IP packets but does not encrypt the payload.
* Implementation:
* Use ESP as part of an IPsec VPN configuration to encrypt and secure communication between
* two sites. This involves setting up IPsec policies and ensuring both endpoints are configured to use ESP for data encryption.
References:
* CompTIA Network+ study materials on IPsec and secure communication protocols.
NEW QUESTION # 73
Which of the following are environmental factors that should be considered when installing equipment in a building? (Select two).
- A. Power load
- B. Fire suppression system
- C. Floor construction type
- D. UPS location
- E. Humidity control
- F. Proximity to nearest MDF
Answer: B
Explanation:
When installing equipment in a building, environmental factors are critical to ensure the safety and longevity of the equipment. A fire suppression system is essential to protect the equipment from fire hazards. Humidity control is crucial to prevent moisture-related damage, such as corrosion and short circuits, which can adversely affect electronic components. Both factors are vital for maintaining an optimal environment for networking equipment.
Reference: CompTIA Network+ study materials.
NEW QUESTION # 74
A virtual machine has the following configuration:
*IPv4 address: 169.254.10.10
*Subnet mask: 255.255.0.0
The virtual machine can reach colocated systems but cannot reach external addresses on the Internet. Which of the following Is most likely the root cause?
- A. TheDNS server is unreachable.
- B. TheIP address is an RFC1918 private address.
- C. Thesubnet mask is incorrect.
- D. TheDHCP server is offline.
Answer: D
Explanation:
* Understanding the 169.254.x.x Address:
* An IPv4 address in the range of 169.254.x.x is an Automatic Private IP Addressing (APIPA) address, assigned when a DHCP server is unavailable.
* DHCP Server Offline:
* APIPA Assignment: When a device cannot obtain an IP address from a DHCP server, it assigns itself an APIPA address to enable local network communication. This allows communication with other devices on the same local subnet but not with external networks.
* Resolution: Ensure the DHCP server is operational. Check for connectivity issues between the virtual machine and the DHCP server, and verify the DHCP server settings.
* Comparison with Other Options:
* The subnet mask is incorrect: The subnet mask 255.255.0.0 is appropriate for the 169.254.x.x range and does not prevent external access by itself.
* The IP address is an RFC1918 private address: RFC1918 addresses are private IP ranges (10.x.
x.x, 172.16.x.x-172.31.x.x, 192.168.x.x) but 169.254.x.x is not one of them.
* The DNS server is unreachable: While this could affect name resolution, it would not prevent the assignment of a non-APIPA address or local network communication.
* Troubleshooting Steps:
* Verify the DHCP server's status and connectivity.
* Restart the DHCP service if necessary.
* Renew the IP lease on the virtual machine using commands such as ipconfig /renew (Windows) or dhclient (Linux).
References:
* CompTIA Network+ study materials on IP addressing and DHCP troubleshooting.
NEW QUESTION # 75
Which of the following disaster recovery concepts is calculated by dividing the total hours of operation by the total number of units?
- A. MTBF
- B. RPO
- C. MTTR
- D. RTO
Answer: A
Explanation:
* Introduction to Disaster Recovery Concepts:
* Disaster recovery involves strategies and measures to ensure business continuity and data recovery in the event of a disaster.
* Mean Time Between Failures (MTBF):
* MTBF is a reliability metric used to predict the time between failures of a system during operation. It is calculated by dividing the total operational time by the number of failures.
* Formula:MTBF=Total Operational TimeNumber of Failures\text{MTBF} = \frac{\text{Total Operational Time}}{\text{Number of Failures}}MTBF=Number of FailuresTotal Operational Time
* This metric helps in understanding the reliability and expected lifespan of systems and components.
* Example Calculation:
* If a server operates for 1000 hours and experiences 2 failures, the MTBF is:
MTBF=1000 hours2=500 hours\text{MTBF} = \frac{1000 \text{ hours}}{2} = 500 \text{ hours}MTBF=21000 hours=500 hours
* Explanation of the Options:
* A. MTTR (Mean Time to Repair):The average time required to repair a system after a failure.
* B. MTBF (Mean Time Between Failures):The correct answer, representing the average time between failures.
* C. RPO (Recovery Point Objective):The maximum acceptable amount of data loss measured in time.
* D. RTO (Recovery Time Objective):The target time set for the recovery of IT and business activities after a disaster.
* Conclusion:
* MTBF is a crucial metric in disaster recovery and system reliability, helping organizations plan maintenance and predict system performance.
References:
* CompTIA Network+ guide explaining MTBF, MTTR, RPO, and RTO concepts and their calculations (see pageRef 10†How to Use Cisco Packet Tracer).
NEW QUESTION # 76
A network administrator configured a router interface as 10.0.0.95 255.255.255.240. The administrator discovers that the router is not routing packets to a web server with IP 10.0.0.81/28. Which of the following is the best explanation?
- A. The web server Is In a different subnet.
- B. The subnet is in a private address space.
- C. The IP address space is a class A network.
- D. The router interface is a broadcast address.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Understanding Subnetting:
The subnet mask 255.255.255.240 (or /28) indicates that each subnet has 16 IP addresses (14 usable addresses, 1 network address, and 1 broadcast address).
Calculating the Subnet Range:
Subnet Calculation: For the IP address 10.0.0.95 with a /28 subnet mask:
Network address: 10.0.0.80
Usable IP range: 10.0.0.81 to 10.0.0.94
Broadcast address: 10.0.0.95
Router Interface Configuration:
Broadcast Address Issue: The IP address 10.0.0.95 is the broadcast address for the subnet 10.0.0.80/28. Configuring a router interface with the broadcast address will cause routing issues as it is not a valid host address.
Comparison with Other Options:
The web server is in a different subnet: The web server (10.0.0.81) is within the same subnet range (10.0.0.80/28).
The IP address space is a class A network: While 10.0.0.0 is a Class A network, this does not explain the routing issue caused by the broadcast address.
The subnet is in a private address space: The private address space designation (RFC 1918) does not impact the routing issue related to the broadcast address configuration.
Resolution:
Reconfigure the router interface with a valid host IP address within the usable range, such as 10.0.0.94.
Reference:
CompTIA Network+ study materials on subnetting and IP address configuration.
NEW QUESTION # 77
A company receives a cease-and-desist order from its ISP regarding prohibited torrent activity. Which of the following should be implemented to comply with the cease-and-desist order?
- A. MAC security
- B. Screened subnet
- C. Content filtering
- D. Perimeter network
Answer: C
Explanation:
Content filtering can be used to block or restrict access to websites and services that facilitate torrenting and other prohibited activities. By implementing content filtering, the company can comply with the ISP's cease-and-desist order and prevent users from accessing torrent sites and engaging in prohibited activities.References:CompTIA Network+ study materials.
NEW QUESTION # 78
An administrator is configuring a switch that will be placed in an area of the office that is accessible to customers. Which of the following is the best way for the administrator to mitigate unknown devices from connecting to the network?
- A. SSE
- B. 802.1x
- C. Perimeter network
- D. ACL
Answer: B
Explanation:
802.1x is a network access control protocol that provides an authentication mechanism to devices trying to connect to a LAN or WLAN. This ensures that only authorized devices can access the network, making it ideal for mitigating the risk of unknown devices connecting to the network, especially in accessible areas.
* 802.1x Authentication: Requires devices to authenticate using credentials (e.g., username and password, certificates) before gaining network access.
* Access Control: Prevents unauthorized devices from connecting to the network, enhancing security in public or semi-public areas.
* Implementation: Typically used in conjunction with a RADIUS server to manage authentication requests.
Network References:
* CompTIA Network+ N10-007 Official Certification Guide: Covers 802.1x and its role in network security.
* Cisco Networking Academy: Provides training on implementing 802.1x for secure network access control.
* Network+ Certification All-in-One Exam Guide: Explains the benefits and configuration of 802.1x authentication in securing network access.
NEW QUESTION # 79
Which of the following attacks can cause users who are attempting to access a company website to be directed to an entirely different website?
- A. Social engineering
- B. DNS poisoning
- C. ARP spoofing
- D. Denial-of-service
Answer: B
Explanation:
Network segmentation involves dividing a network into smaller segments or subnets. This is particularly important when integrating OT (Operational Technology) devices to ensure that these devices are isolated from other parts of the network. Segmentation helps protect the OT devices from potential threats and minimizes the impact of any security incidents. It also helps manage traffic and improves overall network performance.
Reference: CompTIA Network+ study materials.
NEW QUESTION # 80
A user connects to a corporate VPN via a web browser and is able to use TLS to access the internal financial system to input a time card. Which of the following best describes how the VPN is being used?
- A. Site-to-site
- B. Clientless
- C. Client-to-site
- D. Full tunnel
Answer: B
Explanation:
The scenario describes a user connecting to a corporate VPN via a web browser using TLS to access an internal system. This setup is best described as a "clientless" VPN. Clientless VPNs do not require a VPN client to be installed on the user's device; instead, they rely on a standard web browser to establish the connection. This method is particularly useful for providing secure, remote access to applications through a web interface without the need for additional software installations.
Reference: CompTIA Network+ Certification Exam Objectives - Remote Access Methods section.
NEW QUESTION # 81
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