N10-009 Sample Practice Exam Questions 2025 Updated Verified
Exam Study Guide Free Practice Test LAST UPDATED N10-009
NEW QUESTION # 62
Which of the followingconnector typeswould most likely be used to connect to anexternal antenna?
- A. MPO
- B. LC
- C. BNC
- D. ST
Answer: C
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:
BNC connectorsare commonly used forcoaxial cables, including those connecting toexternal antennasinWi- Fi, radio, and surveillance systems.
Breakdown of Options:
* A. BNC-Correct answer.Used forcoaxial cablesinwireless and antenna connections.
* B. ST- Used forfiber optic cables,not antennas.
* C. LC- Afiber optic connector,not for antennas.
* D. MPO- Used formulti-fiber optic cables,not RF antennas.
NEW QUESTION # 63
A company recently converted most of the office laptops to connect wirelessly to the corporate network. After a high-traffic malware attack, narrowing the event to a specific user was difficult because of the wireless configuration.
Which of the following actions should the company take?
- A. Upgrade to a mesh network.
- B. Restrict users to the 5GHz frequency.
- C. Implement WPA2 encryption.
- D. Migrate from PSK to Enterprise.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Using Pre-Shared Key (PSK) authentication means that all users share the same Wi-Fi password, making it difficult to identify individual users when security incidents occur.
Migrating to WPA2-Enterprise (or WPA3-Enterprise) replaces PSK authentication with individual user credentials using 802.1X authentication and a RADIUS server. This allows the organization to:
Track and log specific user activity
Enforce per-user authentication policies
Improve network security
Breakdown of Options:
A: Restrict users to the 5GHz frequency - Improves performance but does not enhance user tracking or security.
B: Upgrade to a mesh network - A mesh network improves coverage, not security tracking.
C: Migrate from PSK to Enterprise - # Correct answer. WPA2-Enterprise or WPA3-Enterprise uses individual user authentication, allowing per-user tracking.
D: Implement WPA2 encryption - WPA2 is already widely used; it does not resolve the tracking issue.
Reference:
CompTIA Network+ (N10-009) Official Study Guide - Domain 3.4: Given a scenario, implement wireless security measures.
IEEE 802.1X: Authentication framework for network access control
NEW QUESTION # 64
Which of the following network cables involves bounding light off of protective cladding?
- A. Single-mode
- B. Multimode
- C. Twinaxial
- D. Coaxial
Answer: B
Explanation:
Multimode fiber optic cables involve the transmission of light signals that bounce off the core's cladding as they travel down the fiber. This characteristic differentiates it from single-mode fiber, where the light travels directly down the fiber without reflecting off the cladding. Here are some detailed points about multimode fiber cables:
Construction: Multimode fibers have a larger core diameter, typically 50 or 62.5 microns, compared to single-mode fibers, which have a core diameter of about 9 microns.
Light Propagation: The larger core of multimode fiber allows multiple light modes to propagate.
These modes travel at different angles, leading to reflections off the core-cladding boundary.
Distance and Bandwidth: Due to modal dispersion, where different light modes arrive at the receiver at different times, multimode fibers are suited for shorter distance applications compared to single-mode fibers. Typical distances are up to 550 meters for 10 Gbps Ethernet using OM4 multimode fiber.
Applications: Multimode fibers are commonly used in LANs (Local Area Networks), data centers, and for shorter distance data transmission due to their cost-effectiveness and ease of installation.
NEW QUESTION # 65
A network manager connects two switches together and uses two connecting links. Which of the following configurations will prevent Layer 2 loops?
- A. Full duplex
- B. 802.1Q tagging
- C. Link aggregation
- D. QoS
Answer: C
Explanation:
Link aggregation (also known as port trunking or EtherChannel) combines multiple network connections in parallel to increase throughput and provide redundancy. When two switches are connected with multiple links without any additional configuration, a Layer 2 loop may occur. Link aggregation prevents these loops by treating the multiple connections as a single logical link, using a protocol such as LACP (Link Aggregation Control Protocol).
From Andrew Ramdayal's guide:
"Link aggregation allows you to combine multiple network connections to increase the bandwidth and provide redundancy. It helps prevent Layer 2 loops when connecting switches with multiple links by making them operate as a single logical interface."
NEW QUESTION # 66
A company recently rearranged some users' workspaces and moved several users to previously used workspaces. The network administrator receives a report that all of the users who were moved are having connectivity issues. Which of the following is the MOST likely reason?
- A. Ports are trunk ports.
- B. Ports have an incorrect native VLAN.
- C. Ports are error-disabled.
- D. Ports are having an MDIX issue.
Answer: B
Explanation:
The most likely cause is that the switchports were previously configured for a different VLANthan the one the users' computers are on. If the native VLAN on the port doesn't match the end device's VLAN, communication fails.
* A. Ports are error-disabled: Would result in no link at all, not common across multiple ports unless a violation occurred.
* C. MDIX issue: Auto-MDIX eliminates most crossover problems on modern switches.
* D. Ports are trunk ports: While possible, typical user devices should be on access ports, but if the port is incorrectly trunked, it can cause similar issues. However, "incorrect VLAN" is more precise here.
#Reference:
CompTIA Network+ N10-009 Official Objectives: 2.3 - Given a scenario, configure and verify VLANs.
NEW QUESTION # 67
A technician is implementing a new SD-WAN device with a default configuration. The technician receives a URL via email and connects the new device to the internet to complete the installation.
Which of the following is this an example of?
- A. Configuration management
- B. Infrastructure as code
- C. SASE device installation
- D. Zero-touch provisioning
Answer: D
Explanation:
This process describesZero-touch provisioning (ZTP), where a device automatically pulls its configuration from a cloud controller or URL once connected to the internet. It's common in SD-WAN and modern network appliances.
* A. SASE(Secure Access Service Edge) refers to cloud-delivered network security, not a provisioning method.
* C. Infrastructure as codeautomates infrastructure deployment using code, but this scenario specifically fits ZTP.
* D. Configuration managementtracks and maintains system configurations but doesn't describe the installation process.
#Reference:
CompTIA Network+ N10-009 Official Objectives: 4.3 - Explain remote access methods and automation.
NEW QUESTION # 68
After a recent power outage, users are reporting performance issues accessing the application servers.
Wireless users are also reporting intermittent Internet issues.
INSTRUCTIONS
Click on each tab at the top of the screen. Select a widget to view information, then use the drop-down menus to answer the associated questions. If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation, please click the Reset All button.
Answer:
Explanation:
See the answer and solution below.
Explanation:
Network Health:
WAN 2 appears to have a lower average latency and loss percentage, which would make it the preferred WAN station for VoIP traffic. VoIP traffic requires low latency and packet loss to ensure good voice quality and reliability. WAN 1 seems to have higher RAM and processor usage, which could also affect the performance of VoIP traffic.
Here's the summary of the key metrics for WAN 1 and WAN 2 from the image provided:
* WAN 1:
* Uplink Speed: 10G
* Total Usage: 26.969GB Up / 1.748GB Down
* Average Throughput: 353MBps Up / 23.42MBps Down
* Loss: 2.51%
* Average Latency: 24ms
* Jitter: 9.5ms
* WAN 2:
* Uplink Speed: 1G
* Total Usage: 930GB Up / 138GB Down
* Average Throughput: 12.21MBps Up / 1.82MBps Down
* Loss: 0.01%
* Average Latency: 11ms
* Jitter: 3.9ms
For VoIP traffic, low latency and jitter are particularly important to ensure voice quality. While WAN 1 has higher bandwidth and throughput, it also has higher latency and jitter compared to WAN 2. However, WAN 2 has much lower loss, lower latency, and lower jitter, which are more favorable for VoIP traffic that is sensitive to delays and variation in packet arrival times.
Given this information, WAN 2 would generally be preferred for VoIP traffic due to its lower latency, lower jitter, and significantly lower loss percentage, despite its lower bandwidth compared to WAN 1. The high bandwidth of WAN 1 may be more suitable for other types of traffic that are less sensitive to latency and jitter, such as bulk data transfers.
Device Monitoring:
the device that is experiencing connectivity issues is the APP Server or Router 1, which has a status of Down.
This means that the server is not responding to network requests or sending any data. You may want to check the physical connection, power supply, and configuration of the APP Server to troubleshoot the problem.
NEW QUESTION # 69
A network engineer receives a vendor alert regarding a vulnerability in a router CPU. Which of the following should the engineer do to resolve the issue?
- A. Isolate the system.
- B. Patch the OS.
- C. Update the firmware.
- D. Replace the system board.
Answer: C
Explanation:
* Understanding the Vulnerability:
* Vulnerabilities in the router CPU can be exploited to cause performance degradation, unauthorized access, or other security issues.
* Firmware Update:
* Firmware Role: The firmware is low-level software that controls the hardware of a device.
Updating the firmware can address vulnerabilities by providing patches and enhancements from the manufacturer.
* Procedure: Download the latest firmware from the vendor's website, follow the manufacturer's instructions to apply the update, and verify that the update resolves the vulnerability.
* Comparison with Other Options:
* Replace the System Board: This is a costly and often unnecessary step if the issue can be resolved with a firmware update.
* Patch the OS: Patching the OS is relevant for devices with a full operating system but not directly applicable to addressing a CPU vulnerability on a router.
* Isolate the System: Temporarily isolating the system can mitigate immediate risk but does not resolve the underlying vulnerability.
* Best Practice:
* Regularly check for and apply firmware updates to ensure that network devices are protected against known vulnerabilities.
NEW QUESTION # 70
SIMULATION
Users are unable to access files on their department share located on file server 2.
The network administrator has been tasked with validating routing between networks hosting workstation A and file server 2.
INSTRUCTIONS
Click on each router to review output, identify any issues, and configure the appropriate solution.
If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation, please click the Reset All button.
Answer:
Explanation:
See the solution in Explanation
Explanation:
To validate routing between networks hosting Workstation A and File Server 2, follow these steps:
Step-by-Step Solution
Review Routing Tables:
Check the routing tables of Router A, Router B, and Router C to identify any missing routes.
Identify Missing Routes:
Ensure that each router has routes to the networks on which Workstation A and File Server 2 are located.
Add Static Routes:
If a route is missing, add a static route to the relevant destination network via the correct interface.
Detailed Analysis and Configuration
Router A:
Routing Table:
Gateway of last resort is 0.0.0.0 to network 0.0.0.0
S* 0.0.0.0/0 is directly connected, GigabitEthernet3
10.0.0.0/8 is variably subnetted, 4 subnets, 2 masks
C 10.0.4.0/22 is directly connected, GigabitEthernet2
C 10.0.6.0/24 is directly connected, GigabitEthernet2
L 10.0.6.1/32 is directly connected, GigabitEthernet2
172.16.0.0/16 is variably subnetted, 2 subnets, 2 masks
C 172.16.27.0/30 is directly connected, GigabitEthernet3
L 172.16.27.1/32 is directly connected, GigabitEthernet3
Router B:
Routing Table:
Gateway of last resort is 0.0.0.0 to network 0.0.0.0
S* 0.0.0.0/0 is directly connected, GigabitEthernet1
10.0.0.0/8 is variably subnetted, 4 subnets, 2 masks
C 10.0.0.0/22 is directly connected, GigabitEthernet1
L 10.0.0.1/32 is directly connected, GigabitEthernet1
172.16.0.0/16 is variably subnetted, 2 subnets, 2 masks
C 172.16.27.4/30 is directly connected, GigabitEthernet1
L 172.16.27.5/32 is directly connected, GigabitEthernet1
Router C:
Routing Table:
10.0.0.0/8 is variably subnetted, 4 subnets, 2 masks
S 10.0.0.0/22 [1/0] via GigabitEthernet1
S 10.0.4.0/22 [1/0] via GigabitEthernet2
172.16.0.0/16 is variably subnetted, 2 subnets, 2 masks
C 172.16.27.0/30 is directly connected, GigabitEthernet2
L 172.16.27.2/32 is directly connected, GigabitEthernet2
C 172.16.27.4/30 is directly connected, GigabitEthernet1
L 172.16.27.6/32 is directly connected, GigabitEthernet1
Configuration Steps:
Router A:
Install Static Route to 10.0.0.0/22 via 172.16.27.1 (assuming Router C's IP is 172.16.27.1):
Destination Prefix: 10.0.0.0
Destination Prefix Mask: 255.255.252.0
Interface: GigabitEthernet3
Router B:
Install Static Route to 10.0.4.0/22 via 172.16.27.5 (assuming Router C's IP is 172.16.27.5):
Destination Prefix: 10.0.4.0
Destination Prefix Mask: 255.255.252.0
Interface: GigabitEthernet1
Router C:
Install Static Route to 10.0.6.0/24 via 172.16.27.2 (assuming Router A's IP is 172.16.27.2):
Destination Prefix: 10.0.6.0
Destination Prefix Mask: 255.255.255.0
Interface: GigabitEthernet2
Install Static Route to 10.0.0.0/22 via 172.16.27.1 (assuming Router B's IP is 172.16.27.1):
Destination Prefix: 10.0.0.0
Destination Prefix Mask: 255.255.252.0
Interface: GigabitEthernet1
Summary of Static Routes:
Router A:
ip route 10.0.0.0 255.255.252.0 GigabitEthernet3
Router B:
ip route 10.0.4.0 255.255.252.0 GigabitEthernet1
Router C:
ip route 10.0.6.0 255.255.255.0 GigabitEthernet2
ip route 10.0.0.0 255.255.252.0 GigabitEthernet1
These configurations ensure that each router knows the correct paths to reach Workstation A and File Server 2, resolving the connectivity issue.
NEW QUESTION # 71
Which of the following fiber connector types is the most likely to be used on a network interface card?
- A. MPO
- B. SC
- C. LC
- D. ST
Answer: C
Explanation:
* Definition of Fiber Connector Types:
* LC (Lucent Connector): A small form-factor fiber optic connector with a push-pull latching mechanism, commonly used for high-density applications.
* SC (Subscriber Connector or Standard Connector): A larger form-factor connector with a push-pull latching mechanism, often used in datacom and telecom applications.
* ST (Straight Tip): A bayonet-style connector, typically used in multimode fiber optic networks.
* MPO (Multi-fiber Push On): A connector designed to support multiple fibers (typically 12 or
24 fibers), used in high-density cabling environments.
* Common Usage:
* LC Connectors: Due to their small size, LC connectors are widely used in network interface cards (NICs) and high-density environments such as data centers. They allow for more connections in a smaller space compared to SC and ST connectors.
* SC and ST Connectors: These are larger and more commonly used in patch panels and older fiber installations but are less suitable for high-density applications.
* MPO Connectors: Primarily used for trunk cables in data centers and high-density applications but not typically on individual network interface cards.
* Selection Criteria:
* The small form-factor and high-density capabilities of LC connectors make them the preferred choice for network interface cards, where space and connection density are critical considerations.
References:
* CompTIA Network+ study materials on fiber optics and connector types.
NEW QUESTION # 72
Which of the following is the next step to take after successfully testing a root cause theory?
- A. Implement the solution to the problem.
- B. Duplicate the problem in a lab.
- C. Determine resolution steps.
- D. Present the theory for approval.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Troubleshooting Methodology:
Confirming the Root Cause: After testing and confirming the theory, the next logical step is to address the issue by implementing a solution.
Implementation of the Solution:
Resolve the Issue: Implement the identified solution to rectify the problem. This step involves making necessary changes to the network configuration, replacing faulty hardware, or applying software patches.
Documentation: Document the solution and the steps taken to resolve the issue to provide a reference for future troubleshooting.
NEW QUESTION # 73
A small company has the following IP addressing strategy:
A user is unable to connect to the company fileshare server located at 192.168.10.1. The user's networking configuration is:
Which of the following will most likely correct the issue?
- A. Changing the physical address to 7A-01-7A-21-01-50
- B. Changing the IPv4 address to 192.168.10.1
- C. Changing the DNS servers to internet IPs
- D. Changing the subnet mask to 255.255.255.0
Answer: D
Explanation:
If the usercannot communicatewith192.168.10.1, they might be on adifferent subnet.Changing the subnet mask to 255.255.255.0ensures the user and the file server arein the same subnet.
Breakdown of Options:
* A. Changing the IPv4 address to 192.168.10.1- This wouldconflictwith the server's IP.
* B. Changing the subnet mask to 255.255.255.0-#Correct answer.Ensuresboth the user and the serverare on thesame subnet.
* C. Changing the DNS servers- DNS doesnot affect local network connectivity.
* D. Changing the physical address- TheMAC addressdoesnot impact subnet communication.
NEW QUESTION # 74
Which of the following steps in the troubleshooting methodology includes checking logs for recent changes?
- A. Test the theory to determine cause.
- B. Document the findings and outcomes.
- C. Identify the problem.
- D. Establish a plan of action.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Checking logs for recent changes is part of the "Identify the problem" step in the CompTIA troubleshooting methodology. This step involves gathering information, including reviewing logs and documentation, to understand what might have changed or caused the issue. This preliminary analysis is critical for forming an accurate theory about the problem.
NEW QUESTION # 75
A network engineer needs to virtualize network services, including a router at a remote branch location.
Which of the following solutions meets the requirements?
- A. NFV
- B. VLAN
- C. VRF
- D. VPC
Answer: A
Explanation:
Network Functions Virtualization (NFV): NFV is a technology that virtualizes network services like routing, firewalls, and load balancers. It allows these services to run on virtual machines rather than requiring dedicated hardware. This is ideal for remote branch locations where deploying physical devices is costly and complex.
VRF (B): Virtual Routing and Forwarding is used for segmenting routing tables but does not virtualize services.
VLAN (C): Virtual Local Area Networks help segregate broadcast domains but are unrelated to virtualizing network functions.
VPC (D): Virtual Private Cloud is used for cloud computing but does not pertain to virtualizing network services.
NEW QUESTION # 76
Which of the following fiber connector types is the most likely to be used on a network interface card?
- A. MPO
- B. SC
- C. LC
- D. ST
Answer: C
Explanation:
* Definition of Fiber Connector Types:
* LC (Lucent Connector): A small form-factor fiber optic connector with a push-pull latching mechanism, commonly used for high-density applications.
* SC (Subscriber Connector or Standard Connector): A larger form-factor connector with a push- pull latching mechanism, often used in datacom and telecom applications.
* ST (Straight Tip): A bayonet-style connector, typically used in multimode fiber optic networks.
* MPO (Multi-fiber Push On): A connector designed to support multiple fibers (typically 12 or 24 fibers), used in high-density cabling environments.
* Common Usage:
* LC Connectors: Due to their small size, LC connectors are widely used in network interface cards (NICs) and high-density environments such as data centers. They allow for more connections in a smaller space compared to SC and ST connectors.
* SC and ST Connectors: These are larger and more commonly used in patch panels and older fiber installations but are less suitable for high-density applications.
* MPO Connectors: Primarily used for trunk cables in data centers and high-density applications but not typically on individual network interface cards.
* Selection Criteria:
* The small form-factor and high-density capabilities of LC connectors make them the preferred choice for network interface cards, where space and connection density are critical considerations.
NEW QUESTION # 77
A network engineer configures a new switch and connects it to an existing switch for expansion and redundancy. Users immediately lose connectivity to the network. The network engineer notes the following spanning tree information from both switches:
Switch 1
Port State Cost
1 Forward 2
2 Forward 2
Switch 2
Port State Cost
1 Forward 2
2 Forward 2
Which of the following best describes the issue?
- A. The port cost should not be equal.
- B. The switch should be configured for RSTP.
- C. A root bridge needs to be identified.
- D. The ports should use link aggregation.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation: The issue is that no root bridge has been identified. In STP, a root bridge is necessary to manage redundant paths and avoid loops in the network. Without a root bridge, all switches will assume they can forward traffic, causing a network loop and connectivity problems.
NEW QUESTION # 78
A network administrator's device is experiencing severe Wi-Fi interference within the corporate headquarters causing the device to constantly drop off the network. Which of the following is most likely the cause of the issue?
- A. Too much wireless reflection
- B. Too much wireless absorption
- C. Too many wireless repeaters
- D. Too many client connections
Answer: A
Explanation:
Severe Wi-Fi interference within a corporate headquarters causing devices to constantly drop off the network is most likely due to too much wireless reflection. Wireless reflection occurs when Wi-Fi signals bounce off surfaces like walls, metal, or glass, causing multipath interference. This can lead to poor signal quality and frequent disconnections. Other causes like wireless absorption, too many repeaters, or too many client connections can also affect Wi-Fi performance, but excessive reflection is a common culprit in environments with many reflective surfaces.
Reference: CompTIA Network+ Certification Exam Objectives - Wireless Networks section.
NEW QUESTION # 79
Which of the following ports creates a secure connection to a directory service?
- A. 0
- B. 1
- C. 2
- D. 3
Answer: B
Explanation:
LDAP (Lightweight Directory Access Protocol) uses port 389 for standard connections and port 636 for LDAP over SSL (LDAPS), which secures directory service communication.
Breakdown of Options:
A: 22 - SSH port, not used for directory services.
B: 389 - Used for LDAP, but not encrypted.
C: 445 - Used for SMB file sharing, not LDAP.
D: 636 - Correct answer. LDAPS (LDAP over SSL/TLS) secures directory authentication.
Reference:
CompTIA Network+ (N10-009) Official Study Guide - Domain 3.1: Compare and contrast network protocols.
RFC 4511: Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP)
NEW QUESTION # 80
Which of the following can support a jumbo frame?
- A. Access point
- B. Switch
- C. Hub
- D. Bridge
Answer: B
Explanation:
Definition of Jumbo Frames:
Jumbo frames are Ethernet frames with more than 1500 bytes of payload, typically up to 9000 bytes. They are used to improve network performance by reducing the overhead caused by smaller frames.
Why Switches Support Jumbo Frames:
Switches are network devices designed to manage data packets and can be configured to support jumbo frames. This capability enhances throughput and efficiency, particularly in high- performance networks and data centers.
NEW QUESTION # 81
Which of the following can also provide a security feature when implemented?
- A. FHRP
- B. BGP
- C. EIGRP
- D. NAT
Answer: D
Explanation:
NAT (Network Address Translation) helps hide internal IP addresses from external networks, adding a layer of security by preventing direct access to internal systems from the outside.
NEW QUESTION # 82
An organization has a security requirement that all network connections can be traced back to a user. A network administrator needs to identify a solution to implement on the wireless network. Which of the following is the best solution?
- A. Requiring theuse of PSKs
- B. Enforcing wired equivalent protection
- C. Configuring acaptive portal for users
- D. Implementingenterprise authentication
Answer: D
Explanation:
Enterprise authentication (such as WPA2-Enterprise) utilizes unique credentials for each user, typically integrating with an authentication server like RADIUS. This allows for tracking and logging user activity, ensuring that all connections can be traced back to individual users. PSKs (Pre-Shared Keys) are shared among users and do not provide individual accountability. Captive portals can identify users but are less secure than enterprise authentication, and Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP) is outdated and not recommended for security purposes.
Reference:
CompTIA Network+ materials highlight enterprise authentication methods as the preferred solution for secure and accountable wireless network access.
NEW QUESTION # 83
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